Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 04:48
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Are people who cite the 2nd Amendment honestly familiar with what it establishes?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What makes females believe or think abortions are part of a woman’s rights?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?